02-01-2007 12:41 PM - edited 03-03-2019 03:35 PM
I have two 2800 routers connected over T1. One is HQ and the other is remote. They want to use same IP address scheme in everysite. Is that possble like I'm using routers as layer 2 switch? Do I make any sense? Basically, they want to use 10.0.0.0/24 and 10.0.0.0/24 on both side. No overlap in IPs.
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02-01-2007 01:04 PM
why would you want to do such a thing? If you leave the routers routing, then no you can't do it, well you can, traffic just won't be able to go from hq to remote. You could probably come up with some complicated solution using bvi's. something along the lines creating a bridge group, then assigning the bridge group to the serial interface and the fa interface, then creating a bvi and giving that an ip address. kind of a cludge and not sure that it would work.
02-01-2007 01:04 PM
why would you want to do such a thing? If you leave the routers routing, then no you can't do it, well you can, traffic just won't be able to go from hq to remote. You could probably come up with some complicated solution using bvi's. something along the lines creating a bridge group, then assigning the bridge group to the serial interface and the fa interface, then creating a bvi and giving that an ip address. kind of a cludge and not sure that it would work.
03-15-2007 10:53 AM
Hi, this is something I need to configure too. The customer has today a unique network with clients and servers. He needs to move servers to a datacenter but for several reasons it is not possible to change neither the IP plan of the servers nor of the clients. The link to the datacenter is extremely fast so it might make sense.
I'm looking at bvi interfaces as you suggested. If I can progress I'll update you. Please let me know if you can manage to solve it.
Thanks
Nicola
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