Cisco 3845 config

Unanswered Question
Apr 16th, 2007

Hey guys - We recently dropped fiber into one of existing locations that has a T1. This t1 (serial 0/0/0:0) is configured as the primary link back to our main campus. We have 5 35xx switches down stream of this router, and so far, have 3 different vlans on the t1 side. None of the vlans are duplicated, so that shouldnt be an issue. The real question - if I configure gig 0/1 with an ip thats in my "switch management" network (xx.xx.100.xx), can I simply "route" the traffic from all the switches to the ge 0/1 port with something like: (including keeping the t1 as an emergency backup line).

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 gigabit ethernet 0/1 1

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial0/0/0:0 25

??

thanks in advance.

I have this problem too.
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Anand Narayana Mon, 04/16/2007 - 20:05

Hi Don,

yeah u can simply route the traffic via giga 0/1 being a Routing port. so it is not a problem at all.

spremkumar Mon, 04/16/2007 - 20:05

Hi

After checking out your requirement the redundancy scenario wont work since the ethernet interface wont go down untill unless you remove the cable connected onto the port.

So without removing the cable and if you have problem in the media the traffic wont fall back on the T1 link.

This is the normal behavior coz of the persistent of the default route in the routing table..

To overcome the same you need to have a feature called object tracking which will help you to track the remote destination with normal icmp polling and automates the traffic fallback onto the secondary link...

you can refer the below link for more info..

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/ps6350/products_configuration_guide_chapter09186a008042fbeb.html

regds

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