Route Redistribution Question

Unanswered Question
Jun 14th, 2007

Hey All,

In regards to Route Redistribution, I'd like to understand something here. In performing one-way redistribution, I have the following scenario:

A--B--C--D

Routers A & B are running Rip v2

Router C is running Rip v2 & OSPF

Router D is running OSPF

On router C I've configured the OSPF command: redistribute rip subnets metric 30. In the routing table in Router D, it displays my OSPF E2 routes correctly for all of the rip subnets. From router D I can now ping all interfaces running both Rip & OSPF - which is good. However, I cannot ping beyond router C from Router D - even though D's routing table clearly shows all of the Rip subnets across the network.

Sooo, my question is: Is this correct? I don't think it is - should I not be able to ping all of the other routers from D, since their routes are in the table? *I have verified all connectivy from all routers, and I can also ping from Router C to all interfaces on A & B. *No access lists or anything else has been configured - just the ip addresses and the routing protocols...

I have this problem too.
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Edison Ortiz Thu, 06/14/2007 - 07:53

Router A and Router B need to have routing information from Router D.

The packet from router D gets there but it doesn't know how to return.

You must redistribute ospf under the RIP process or originate a default route under RIP on Router C.

bwgray Thu, 06/14/2007 - 10:00

You rock!

Many thanks. As soon as I put in a network statement of 0.0.0.0 into the ASBR for rip, it pinged!

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