Unanswered Question
Dec 17th, 2007
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Hi all, I am having a bit of trouble understanding the reasoning behind L2TP/IPSec. I understand that L2TP is not a very secure protocol which is why it is a good idea to encapsulate it in an IPSec tunnel, however, in that case why not just use IPSec on its own?

I'm sure there is a logical answer to that question but so far I have been unable to find it. Any information would be greatly appreciated. Thank you.

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MaseBarnes Tue, 12/18/2007 - 01:45
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IPSec = Layer3

L2TP = Layer2

You can route Layer3 stuff through L2TP.

voiper_99 Tue, 12/18/2007 - 13:41
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Thanks for the reply, but why would you want to forward layer 3 stuff through layer 2, can't you just route layer 3 through layer 3?


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