01-17-2008 02:48 AM - edited 03-05-2019 08:31 PM
Hi all, if I have 2 routers using hsrp
router 1 ip is .1, routers 2 ip is .2
virtual ip is .3
when I do a traceroute to a destination, I see the path takes ip .1 then .2
why is this ?
01-17-2008 03:01 AM
Hi Carl,
Do your pc, from where you do the traceroute, have as a default gateway virtual ip x.x.x.3?
When you do "sh standby brief" on e.g. router1, is this router active or standby?
Also you can try to trace your destination from router1, maybe router2 ip x.x.x.2 is the correct next hop for the destination subnet, you are trying to go to (depending on routing protocol you are using).
If this is the case, you should think about it, and change the routing or, if the route throught router2 is better than throught route1, you should make your router2 active in HSRP and configure x.x.x.3 as a default gateway on your PCs
HTH
Ivan
01-17-2008 03:10 AM
so you are saying router 1 is active, but its using the other router to get to the destination, so it has to take 2 hops ?
01-17-2008 03:27 AM
It depends on your routing, but seems like this.
If you run some dynamic routing protocol, between router1 and router2, and both routers have an access to your destination subnet, one router could have better metric for his subnet thus the routing will go throught this router. Lets say router2 has metric 10 to your destination and router1 has metric 50. Router1 is hsrp active so all PCs on your lan will send (in case of destination in different subnet, as they are) the packet to their default-gateway (I suppose your router1) and this default-getaway will then use it's own routing table to reach the destination. If the next point to this destination is x.x.x.2 (router2), the packet will be send there and so on.
Does this make sence?
First of all, check what is the default-gateway ip address on your PC
hth
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