01-28-2008 03:51 PM - edited 03-05-2019 08:46 PM
Hello,
I have a cisco 2960.
I've added a VLAN with a different subnet after I gave the switch it's initial IP.
Now, I can't remote manage the switch from any client on the new VLAN/subnet.
Do I have to add a route or something to the old VLAN/initial switch IP?
Thanks in advance
01-28-2008 04:39 PM
Hi
Do you have the default-gateway set on your 2960 ?.
So the client will have a default-gateway of the L3 interface for the new vlan. To communicate with the switch IP the switch needs to be able to route packets back to the client so the switch needs it's default-gateway as well eg.
switch is in vlan 1
vlan 1 = 192.168.10.0/24
switch IP = 192.168.10.5
L3 interface for vlan 1 = 192.168.10.1
so default-gateway on switch needs to be 192.168.10.1
Jon
01-28-2008 06:08 PM
Hi
If you want to use a new Vlan as a mgmt Vlan, you need turn off Vlan 1 first.
Make sure the SW is working on VTP SERVER mode .
last, set up a default route .
02-05-2008 06:08 AM
Hi
a 2960 is a L2 switch.
That means that there can only ever be 1 IP address configured at any 1 time after a "interface vlan x" command. the other vlans do not need IP addresses on a L2 switch to work. ie just
vlan x
name test-vlan
and that should activate the vlan on that switch if it is in VTP transparent or Server mode.
otherwise if in VTP Client mode just so
show vlan
to see if it has already that VLAN configured in the VLAN database.
The switch will only then be manageable from the VLAN with the IP address.
Thanks
fraser
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