internet setup

Unanswered Question
Feb 7th, 2008
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Hi all, is it possible for me to bridge my ethernet 0 interface to my dialler 1 interface, I want to do this so that the ethernet interface has the same ip and so can plug my firewall directly into it and have that on a public ip, has anyone got a simple config example for this ?

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carl_townshend Tue, 02/19/2008 - 03:54
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so If I have a router with a dsl interface and an ethernet interface, if I have my firewall sitting off the ethernet interface on the same subnet at the dialler, will this allow internet to see my firewall ? is this the same effect as bridging ?

Hi Carl


You have me there. I had my first introduction to configuring ADSL over last weekend and thankfully had the support of a fellow forum member "Edison Ortiz".


I just remember that in some of the documents I looked at, I seen something about using the "ip unnumbered " command to make "int x" have the same public IP address as your WAN (dialer1) interface. Did not look to much into this as was just trying to get my ADSL router onto the Internet and assign IP addresses (rfc 1918) to my inside hosts via DHCP. Firewall is for another day :)


Best Regards,


Michael

Scott Cannon Tue, 02/19/2008 - 16:39
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Hi carl,


I've done something similar with wireless AP setups that you may be able to use.


Under each interface, commit the bridge-group _group number_ command.


ie.


Interface Eth0

bridge-group 1


Interface Dialer1

bridge-group 1


My only concern here is that you've probably already brdiged your dialer interface to the physical ATM interface and I doubt you can bridge an interface twice (it makes no sense to me).


Cheers

Scott

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