02-07-2008 11:53 PM - edited 03-05-2019 09:02 PM
Hi all, is it possible for me to bridge my ethernet 0 interface to my dialler 1 interface, I want to do this so that the ethernet interface has the same ip and so can plug my firewall directly into it and have that on a public ip, has anyone got a simple config example for this ?
02-19-2008 03:06 AM
can anyone please help me on this ?
thanks
Carl
02-19-2008 03:24 AM
Hi Carl
I think that this can be done by typing
"ip address unnumbered dialer1" under your E0 interface.
Best Regards,
Michael
02-19-2008 03:54 AM
so If I have a router with a dsl interface and an ethernet interface, if I have my firewall sitting off the ethernet interface on the same subnet at the dialler, will this allow internet to see my firewall ? is this the same effect as bridging ?
02-19-2008 06:45 AM
Hi Carl
You have me there. I had my first introduction to configuring ADSL over last weekend and thankfully had the support of a fellow forum member "Edison Ortiz".
I just remember that in some of the documents I looked at, I seen something about using the "ip unnumbered
Best Regards,
Michael
02-19-2008 04:39 PM
Hi carl,
I've done something similar with wireless AP setups that you may be able to use.
Under each interface, commit the bridge-group _group number_ command.
ie.
Interface Eth0
bridge-group 1
Interface Dialer1
bridge-group 1
My only concern here is that you've probably already brdiged your dialer interface to the physical ATM interface and I doubt you can bridge an interface twice (it makes no sense to me).
Cheers
Scott
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