03-08-2008 09:36 PM - edited 03-05-2019 09:38 PM
Hai everybdy,
I have my set up this way between two diffrent areas/subnet.IP routing is enabled between 3750(1st).what will b the default gateway for pc's in 2960?3750(2nd) has 2 interfece with ip routing enabled(as it has diff subnet)can somebdy explain in wat case the default gateway for pc's will be 3750(2nd)interface or 3750(2nd)interface???looking forward to get a detailed reply..
3750-------------------3750(1st)
! !
3750 3750(2nd)
! !
2960 2960
! !
20 PC's connected. 10 PC's
03-09-2008 05:23 AM
Your default gateway will be the layer 3 routed interface address for your vlan , if say vlan 3 is defined on your 3750 with an address of 192.168.3.1 , then all pc's in vlan 3 will point their default gateway at that address.
03-09-2008 09:50 AM
Hi Sakthi,
Suppose your 20 pcs are in vlan x.
If you can reach 3750(1st) through layer2, then the ip address of "interface vlan x" of 3750(1st) will be the default gateway address for the 20 pcs.
In this case you should have a "vlan x" configured on 3750(2nd) through which you should reach 3750(1st).
If you have an "interface vlan x" on your 3750(2nd) and there is only layer3 (routed) connection between 3750(2nd) and 3750(1st), then the ip address of "interface vlan x" of 3750(2nd) should be the default gateway address for the 20 pcs.
So the default gateway should be the router or layer3 switch that you can reach from your pcs within 1 hop.
I hope I expained clearly :)
Cheers:
Istvan
Discover and save your favorite ideas. Come back to expert answers, step-by-step guides, recent topics, and more.
New here? Get started with these tips. How to use Community New member guide