here is the scenario:
Site-to-site VPN between 2 routers.
Routers separated by public Internet.
RFC 1918 addresses on source and destination networks.
If in transport mode, IPSec does not encrypt the original IP header, but instead leaves it exposed for routing purposes, is it then true that you cant run IPSec transport mode when you have private address on both ends? You cant route private addresses over the public Internet, of course...hence, my question.
In tunnel mode, the original IP packet is totally encapsulated by an IPSec packet and the IPSec tunnel endpoints are the address that are exposed and used for routing the user traffic. So, of course, tunnel mode is perfectly acceptable