I have CAM (manager) which is configured as L2 OOB real-ip gateway. central deployment.
ethernet 0 (trusted) is L3. (ip add x.x.x.x)
ethernet 1 (untrusted) is .1q and several authentication vlans (a,b,c,d) are connected to it.
of cause managed subnets are configured for auth vlans on eth1.
Manager is configured as dhcp-relay.
Is it ok that manager changes dhcp packets to the dhcp server so that it's ethernet 0 ip address (x.x.x.x) becomes the source address of the requests to the dhcp server?
how can dhcp server recognize auth vlan a from auth vlan b if all packets have the single source (x.x.x.x)???
Where could be my mistake?