Vendor 2950 Must Use VLAN 1

Unanswered Question
Apr 23rd, 2008

A vendor is insisting their switch must run using the VLAN 1 interface and with it's ports accessing VLAN 1. I can't get rid of the vendor so I am looking for ways around this. My dilemma is the Subnet they are using for their devices and the switches VLAN 1 interface is also used for the part of the network I control and can't be changed. Is it possible to set the switch that the vendor uplinks to, to access mode on another VLAN ID (77 for example), and then the other end on the vendor switch just be set to defaults (no config on the switchport)? Will traffic still pass correctly? if i need to send traffic (as I do) to one of the vendors devices hooked up to their switch, will it still work, w/o VLAN mismatch errors?

For example can a device ip'd on a switchport connected to VLAN77 talk to a device on the vendors switch that is setup as VLAN1 ip'd as, given that the uplink between the switches is set to access mode?

Thanks for any and all help!

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andrew.butterworth Wed, 04/23/2008 - 13:35

Yes it will work as you describe. Set your switchport as an access port in the VLAN you want it and leave theirs as default. You will get some error messages logged due to CDP, however you can disable CDP on that interface.




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