OSPF area '0' question

Unanswered Question
May 12th, 2008
User Badges:
  • Gold, 750 points or more

Hi All,

Due to the client requirement initially, I have built 2 OSPF areas (n/ws at different locations) without Area '0' (area 10 & area11). As both locations connect via 'L2L' tunnel, works fine. Inside of the LANS OSPF works fine. Now clent have another location coming up which will have direct P2P link with Area10. So is it recommended to create the new location as Area '0'..?

Please ussgest.

Thank you


PS: Client already has legacy OSPF network with area0 and it was predicted earlier that Area10 & 11 will connect to legacy network, but looks like it may not happen in near future.

  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5
Overall Rating: 0 (0 ratings)
bvsnarayana03 Mon, 05/12/2008 - 05:51
User Badges:
  • Silver, 250 points or more

You may want to create a loopback on router & put it in area 0, which is known as logical backbone.

Another option is to have local subnets adv in specific areas, whicle point-to-point links in area 0.

Richard Burts Mon, 05/12/2008 - 07:06
User Badges:
  • Super Silver, 17500 points or more
  • Hall of Fame,

    Founding Member

  • Cisco Designated VIP,

    2017 LAN, WAN


If the loopback interface is the only interface that is in area 0 then it will make OSPF run well on that router. But it is likely to produce discontiguous backbone area 0 when there are 2 or more OSPF routers and it will cause more problems that it solves.


I believe that the relation between the legacy OSPF and the new OSPF should get careful thought. I do not believe that we have enough information at this point to give you good advice. Can you tell us a bit more about the legacy OSPF and its relationship to these new OSPF areas?




This Discussion