Unanswered Question
May 18th, 2008

I am not sure if I understand this request clearly, or it can actually work.

Router 1 in customer 1 network is in BGP AS 1 and Router 2 in customer 2 network in BGP AS 2. They want to peer Router 1 to Router 2, but they don't want them to be EBGP peers, since Customer 1 acquired customer 2.

Please kindly advise. Thanks.

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Overall Rating: 0 (0 ratings)
Edison Ortiz Sun, 05/18/2008 - 20:21

but they don't want them to be EBGP peers,

I'm assuming they want to be iBGP?

What's wrong with changing the AS on Customer 2?




gum-tree-tree Sun, 05/18/2008 - 20:25

I guess Router 2 in AS 2 alreay peered to other ISPs, or other parties,it will involve

a lot of work, say making a lot of calls...

Edison Ortiz Mon, 05/19/2008 - 04:49

Fair enough.

What's the requirement for them to be iBGP peers over eBGP peers?

I'm trying to understand why eBGP is not a feasible solution to a peering and why iBGP is preferred.




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