05-18-2008 07:57 PM - edited 03-05-2019 11:03 PM
I am not sure if I understand this request clearly, or it can actually work.
Router 1 in customer 1 network is in BGP AS 1 and Router 2 in customer 2 network in BGP AS 2. They want to peer Router 1 to Router 2, but they don't want them to be EBGP peers, since Customer 1 acquired customer 2.
Please kindly advise. Thanks.
05-18-2008 08:21 PM
but they don't want them to be EBGP peers,
I'm assuming they want to be iBGP?
What's wrong with changing the AS on Customer 2?
HTH,
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Edison.
05-18-2008 08:25 PM
I guess Router 2 in AS 2 alreay peered to other ISPs, or other parties,it will involve
a lot of work, say making a lot of calls...
05-19-2008 04:49 AM
Fair enough.
What's the requirement for them to be iBGP peers over eBGP peers?
I'm trying to understand why eBGP is not a feasible solution to a peering and why iBGP is preferred.
__
Edison.
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