I have got a confusion with regard to OSPF configuration.
Lets assume that i have the following OSPF commands configured on a router.
router ospf 1
network 100.100.50.156 0.0.0.3 area0
network 100.100.50.164 0.0.0.3 area0
network 100.100.50.160 0.0.0.3 area0
network 100.100.50.168 0.0.0.3 area0
network 100.100.50.144 0.0.0.3 area0
network 100.100.50.152 0.0.0.3 area0
network 100.100.50.140 0.0.0.3 area0
network 100.100.50.148 0.0.0.3 area0
Adding these lines would make a lot of effort. My question is, can we make our task small rather by adding only a single command ?
router ospf 1
network 100.100.50.128 0.0.0.63
Waiting for a reply
You will still have to declare the OSPF process in order to get it started, as in router ospf 1. You may also want put some other config under the process if you need it, e.g. stub settings, redistribution, router-id, etc. But at least you can do away with the messy network statements.
I cannot remember when the command was introduced, but I think it was around 12.2(13)T. It is particularly useful - almost essential - when you have an unnumbered interface where you want OSPF to run, but not on the interface supplying its IP address. I'm not sure why Cisco kept so quiet about the feature, but in IPv6 it is the only way to get OSPF running on an interface.
BTW, thanks for the rating Rick!