07-23-2008 09:08 AM - edited 07-03-2021 04:12 PM
Hi, I am looking to configure my Cisco Aironet AP without any VLANs and just one SSID.
The AP will connect directly in to the back of a router on an interface with an IP of 10.20.20.1.
If I set BVI1 on the AP to have an IP of 10.20.20.2, will this be enough to allow communication between the router and the AP since they are on the same subnet?
Clients that connect to the AP will be getting DHCP from the router, and the AP will have a default gateway of 10.20.20.1. I was planning on making 10.20.20.2 an excluded address for the DHCP pool.
The router is running eigrp and I was going to use the commands:
router eigrp 1
network 10.20.20.0 0.0.0.255
Please let me know if this example setup makes sense or if there are any issues with it.
Any help would be greatly appreciated.
Thanks,
-Avery
07-23-2008 11:50 AM
yes with the AP's default config and you set the BVI1 to 10.20.20.2 and the port that its plugged into is a ACCESS level port for that vlan, it will be fine.
08-04-2008 07:40 PM
I want to know the exact same thing, except I have a PIX 515 instead of a router, and I'm having truoble getting my AP to hand out DHCP leases.
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