Hi Guys, I am bit lost here. Please have a look at the attached network topology. I need to combine 172.20.68.0 into 172.24.46.0 so only one default gateway (172.24.46.2) is present. So in the final version of the network there won't be any 172.20.68.0 network.
As Cisco 3650 172.20.68.1 is connected to 172.24.46.13 via Fa22, how can you configure 172.20.68.1 so the vlan 429 be on the same subnet as 172.24.46.0 ? Does these two switches need to be connected as bridge?
what if I change the vlan IP to 172.24.46.3 so that all ports on vlan 426 would have 172.24.46.0 network address. Does that mean that this new vlan 426 would be on the same broadcast domain as the existing network 172.24.46.0 is? All I want is to have same network address 172.24.46.0 for the two 172.20.68.0 and 172.24.46.0 networks.
Any help would be appreciated. Thanks.
if you reach any IP subnet in 172.20.x.x range via an IP next-hop that is in 172.20.68.0/24 you cannot remove this IP subnet !
All the suggestions and from your request lead to think that subnet 172.20.68.0/24 was a leaf without no other network behind it.
If it is not so I would do the following:
just move users from vlan428 to vlan1 and let in vlan428 the ports needed to reach the ip next-hops used to reach other subnets in range 172.20.x.x.
If the only subnet is 172.20.68.0/24 without any IP subnet behind you can go on moving to vlan 1 the ports on RB.
Vlan1 is not recommended for use for end users, It would be better to use a different vlan number.
Hope to help