Might be avery silly question I am going to ask, but I was thinking about it that:
A call comes on to VGW, matches a 'session target ras' dial peer and the GW as we have configured it to, redirects it to the CVP Call Server, and the CVP Call Server sends a New Call Route Request to ICM and the ICM triggers a script on the basis on the DN... the question is how does CVP know where the ICM is and what IP is it?
I know ICM has a CVP PIM (but its the ICM config pointing to CVP) and the CVP Ops Console - Call Server has a ICM tab configuration - but we do not tell CVP the IP of the ICM there or in the VBAdmin configuration or anywhere, so how does CVP Call Server figures out the IP of ICM at the first place to send it a New Call Route Request?
Since you are using H.323, you can avoid asking the gatekeeper for the address of the voice gateway if (and only if) the ingress gateway is the same router as the VXML gateway (branch office deployment).
To do this, configure the CVP VB (H.323 service) using VBAdmin and specify the "SetTransferLabel 8111111111" setting.
See CVP 4.1 Config Guide p.418.
If the ingress gateway and the VXML gateway is not the same, your current method is correct.