Unanswered Question
Dec 30th, 2008
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In trying to resolve an issue for a customer their architecture at the access layer includes a Cisco Router 2801 for VPN termination and Cat 3650 for LAN accesss. I discovered that the there was another connection to a Cisco 1745 for VPN redundancy. However the 1745 was configured for IGMP between it and the Cat 3650. The cat had a VLAN interface configured for the same IP as the cisco 1745. My question is, why would you use IGMP between the 3650 and the 1745 vs. between the 2801 and the 1745

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Giuseppe Larosa Wed, 12/31/2008 - 10:17
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Hello Carlos,

do you need to support multicast traffic in your network ?

if so the two routers should be running IGMP on client interfaces and PIM on inter-devices links.

IGMP on inter-devices link that can be your case should be useless until there is no end user on the vlan

Hope to help



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