Can you please see the attached diagram and tell me if I am correct in my assumption that I am dealing with discontigious Area 0 areas and a virtual link will be required, or is this design totally flawed?
This is a design that I was asked to look over and I do not think it is a very good design.
I know that there is a mis-match between the IP subnets on either side of the PPP link between routers. But this is as per the diagram I was given.
Best regards & TIA,