VLAN issue

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May 3rd, 2009
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Hi,


we are using a cisco 6500 as the core switch and for some reason we taken one port as the access port from vlan 800 and connected to the 2950 switch and from 2950 we are connected to some servers



now in 2950 switch we created a same VLAN 800 and interface VLAN we assigned a ip 10.80.X.X


can we assign the interface vlan ip when we giving access port as the uplink


and also we are geeting 95% of the input error


please help us why its happening

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mahmoodmkl Sun, 05/03/2009 - 23:15
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Hi


What is the gateway of u r servers..?


is it the IP of the vlan interface created on 2950..?


Remember that the 2950 is a pure layer 2 switch.


Thanks

Mahmood

vinoth.kumar Sun, 05/03/2009 - 23:31
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the gateway for the servers are the ip address assignied in the CAT6500 fro the interface VLAN 800



lamav Mon, 05/04/2009 - 03:59
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Vinoth:


Good morning.


The Cisco 2950 switch is a layer 2 switch. This means that it forwards user-packets of data based solely on the L2 destination MAC address. There is no IP address-based forwarding.


Layer 2 switches will allow the administrator to configure one L3 vlan interface, however:


interface vlan 800

ip address x.x.x.x


This routed interface is used for management purposes only; its an IP address that an administrator can TELNET to for remote management.


Sometimes, a network designer will create a specific management vlan that all devices will use and span it across the network, or at least a segment of the network. Sometimes, as is the case in your environment, the designer will just use the data vlan for users as the management interface on the L2 device.


What you will see on the L2 switch is something like this:


vlan 800

name user_vlan


interface vlan 800

ip address 1.1.1.10 255.255.255.0


ip default-gateway 1.1.1.1



On the 6500 switch, you will see something like:


vlan 800

name user_vlan


interface vlan 800

ip address 1.1.1.1 255.255.255.0


[EDIT]


I forgot to answer your specific question.


"can we assign the interface vlan ip when we giving access port as the uplink"


I'm not sure I am 100% clear what you're asking, but the uplink interface on the 2950 switch that will face the 6500 switch will be a L2 trunk port that will carry multiple vlans between the 2950 and the 6500. Or you can use an access port and place it in one vlan, which will be the only vlan configured on the 2950. If you have more than one vlan, you need a trunk uplink.


There is no ip address assignment to a L2 trunk for two reasons:


1.) the Cisco 2950 is a layer 2 switch - we already covered this.


2.) vlan 800 exists on both switches and if you were to use a L3 uplink -- assuming you had the technological ability -- you would isolate the two devices and vlan 800 will become discontiguous. You would have what is referred to as L3 isolation.


[EDIT]



HTH


Victor

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