OSPF process ID

Answered Question
Aug 9th, 2009

Hi,

One question regarding the OSPF process ID

"All routers in the same OSPF area must have the same process ID if they are to exchange routing information"

Is this statement true?

Somebody told me that it is false statement. any idea?

rdgs

I have this problem too.
0 votes
Correct Answer by Edison Ortiz about 7 years 3 months ago

Yes, the process-ID is locally significant.

Correct Answer by Mark Yeates about 7 years 3 months ago

Anita,

Your friend is correct. The process ID of OSPF does not have to be the same.

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_tech_note09186a0080094056.shtml#processid

HTH,

Mark

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anitachoi3 Sun, 08/09/2009 - 07:51

Hi Mark,

if there are two routers (R1 and R2)

! R1

router ospf 10

network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

! R2

router ospf 20

network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

Can both routers exchange routes?

rdgs

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