This is a question from Wendell Odom CCIE Certification Guide book, 3td edition, Chapter 9, question 9. I not sure if the asnwer in the appendix is correct. So I post it here to see if someone agrees with me. There might be more than one right answers.
R1 is an OSPF ASBR that injects an E1 route for network 188.8.131.52/24 into the OSPF
backbone area. R2 is an ABR connected to area 0 and to area 1. R2 also has an Ethernet
interface in area 0, IP address 10.1.1.1/24, for which it is the designated router. R3 is a
router internal to area 1. Enough links are up and working for the OSPF design to be
working properly. Which of the following are true regarding this topology? (Assume no
other routing protocols are running, and that area 1 is not a stubby area.)
* a. R3's cost for the route to 184.108.40.206 will be the cost of the route as it was injected into the
OSPF domain by R1, without considering any internal cost.
* b. R3's cost for the route to 220.127.116.11 will include the addition of R3's cost to reach R1,
plus the external cost listed in the LSA.
* c. R3's cost for the route to 10.1.1.0/24 will be the same as its cost to reach ABR R2.
* d. R3's cost for the route to 10.1.1.0/24 will be the sum of its cost to reach ABR R2 plus
the cost listed in the type 3 LSA created for 10.1.1.0/24 by ABR R2.
* e. It is impossible to characterize R3's cost to 10.1.1.0/24 because R3 uses a summary type
3 LSA, which hides some of the costs.
10. R1 and R2 each connect via Fast Ethernet interfaces to the same LAN, which should be in