Hi folks, please let me know if you can explain the following behavior:
I have functional switches configured as:
My goal is to change 2950B and make it all switchports run assigned to vlan 7 as well as it is 2950A.
Then I go 4507 and change "interface f3/2" from 'switchport allow trunk vlan 22' to 'switchport trunk allow vlan 7'.
I change all switchports on 2950B from 'switchport access vlan 22' to 'switchport access vlan 7'. At that point the 'vlan 7' is created on 2950B.
I changed the ip default-gateway on 2950B to the respective Vlan 7 ip address specified on the 4507 int vlan 7 interface.
I go to the 2950B and do 'no int vlan 22'. No 'vlan 22'.
I made sure that I make the 'int vlan 7' on 2950B as up/up - OK.
Then I confirm that from my workstation on the network, I can ping int 2950B vlan 7 IP address - OK.
Then 20 minutes later someone comes and complain that all servers connected to 2950A are no longer working.
Do you see any obvious problem with the procedure above?
It seems I introduced a SPT loop here.
If the explanation above is not enough I can paste config.