I've got this topology:
Switch1 <---> V100 CoreSwitch <-- V100/101 trunk --> Host
i.e. trunking a couple of vlans to a vm host, but splitting them out to non-vlan'd switches. Except Switch2, a 2950 I picked up is configured for everything to be a vlan2 access port. The Vlan101 port on CoreSwitch (a 6509) is configured as an access port as well, so if I understand things right, with both sides as access ports, it shouldn't matter if the internal vlan ids don't match because there's no vlan tagging going on --- should just be forwarding ethernet frames like any dumb switch? I tried reconfiguring it to all vlan 101 access ports, and saw some indication that there *was* some vlan communication going on, but then lost the connection to an upstream router (a watchguard firewall) that isn't doing any vlan networking at all. Like I said, with everything as access ports, I shouldn't think which vlan id is associated with the ports would make any difference (as long as they're all internally consistent, of course).