02-04-2010 07:42 AM - edited 03-06-2019 09:34 AM
Hi all,
From my reading thus far, I know that one can use 802.1 Q tunnel to pass VLAN across a WAN link. My questions: is it possible to pass more than one VLAN across a WAN link? Does anyone has a sample configuration?
Regards,
Solved! Go to Solution.
02-04-2010 07:56 AM
02-04-2010 07:56 AM
Yes, you can do EoMPLS or L2TPv3.
Regard,
jerry
02-04-2010 08:10 AM
I am more thinking of the L2TPv3 route: Would this work?
Location A:
int G9/48
description Link to Location A
switchport
switchport trunk encap dot1q
switchport trunk native vlan 1001
switchport trunk allowed 5,7,13-15,21,35,99
switchport mode trunk
Location B:
int G9/48
description Link to Location B
switchport
switchport trunk encap dot1q
switchport trunk native vlan 1001
switchport trunk allowed 5,7,13-15,21,35,99
switchport mode trunk
I also think that the service provider has to support this. Correct?
02-04-2010 08:14 AM
Before answering that, how is the connection/design looks like? You are showing me some config off a 6500, are you connecting that port into the SP directly?
Just some reading material for L2TPv3
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_3t/12_3t2/feature/guide/gtl2tpv3.html
Regards,
jerry
02-04-2010 08:18 AM
Yes, we are thinking of ordering a fiber link with our SP and connecting it to our 6509...
02-04-2010 08:27 AM
Then your ISP will need to support 802.1q on their network. 6500 doesn't support L2TPv3.
Regards,
jerry
02-04-2010 08:31 AM
Thanks. What can I use with the 6509. Would that sample configuration work with the 6509 if the SP supports 802.1Q?
02-04-2010 08:48 AM
If your ISP supports some type of LAN service to allow 802.1q, you just have to configure the ports as trunk ports, that is it.
Regards,
jerry
02-04-2010 09:26 AM
Perhaps 802.1QinQ might work? It would assume that you have a trunk available from your isp.
Dave
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