BGP over VRF

Unanswered Question
Feb 5th, 2010
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Hello,


I am trying to find out if issuing the command: address-family ipv4 vrf xxx is going to create two address-family category, one with the VRF and one without. (And automatically move the existing neighbor statements and other config settings pertinent to the new address-family IPV4 configuration. No address-family exist at the moment.) If such a move is going to happen, would that reset your peers?


Will my exisiting router BGP xxx statement with all my neighbor and stuff be left unchanged and the only address-family created will be the one for the VRF?  (That would be great!)


Thanks for any help.

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Jon Marshall Fri, 02/05/2010 - 11:24
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pentagel wrote:


Hello,


I am trying to find out if issuing the command: address-family ipv4 vrf xxx is going to create two address-family category, one with the VRF and one without. (And automatically move the existing neighbor statements and other config settings pertinent to the new address-family IPV4 configuration. No address-family exist at the moment.) If such a move is going to happen, would that reset your peers?


Will my exisiting router BGP xxx statement with all my neighbor and stuff be left unchanged and the only address-family created will be the one for the VRF?  (That would be great!)


Thanks for any help.


Your existing BGP configuration will stay as it is and will not be migrated to an address-family. And it won't reset the existing BGP peering.


Jon

Jon Marshall Fri, 02/05/2010 - 11:34
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pentagel wrote:


Great!!


Thanks for the help.


No problem.


Jon

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