Thank you.  This what I thought however one of the cabling guys who doesn't deal with Routers was 100% positive that I could get it to work.  He brought 3 routers and wanted me to work on it until I got it working.  I told him it was possible.  So I thought I would post because if I was missing something than someone on here always has an answer!  Thanks for proving me RIGHT! 

Cheers

Sorry I told him it WASN'T possible. 

But that is not a problem really. To your customer eyes the router will just convert T1 to ethernet.

When the technical details are above someone understanding, better not even discussing them.

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This can be done without routing on a router. This is called transparent  bridging where we only do bridging between serial T1 to Ethernet.

Incorrect, layer 2 encapsulation used by ISP used on T1 circuits (HDLC or PPP) is NOT bridgeable because there are no MAC addresses.

I know this was posted long time ago but i am trying to do similar thing with T1. I thought it is posible becasue you can do it on  ADSL? I have done transparent bridging on WIC-ADSL module and Ethernet Port. According to my knowledge it also uses ppp. Can you explain it in more details or send some refernce documents?

Take care

Pertinent to your problem, what are you trying to do, and why ?

Incidentally, I note that only a very ignorant person may have low-rated my post above, because what I wrote is the simple, uncontestable truth.

I am attaching Visio Diagram of what i am trying to do. I think it explain better than words. Let me know what you think and if anything like this is possible. The reason why i would do something like this is when ISP gives you only one IP address and you do not want to do double NAT.

Regards

Pawel Bargiel

Please use only standard image formats for attachments, do not use proprietary formats.

What is the physical media used by ISP ? ADSL, T1, Ethernet ?

In case of ADSL, What is the protocol, PPPoE, Bridged RFC ?

Sorry about that. Is JPEG ok? This drawing really explains evrything i am trying to do.

Sorry, I do not understand the purpose of it.

It is a study lab or a real scenario ?

It is a lab scenario to test if this is possible or if there is any walk around it. Example: (Based on the Lab scenario) R2 is an ISP router conntected to my (R1) router via T1 (in this lab both routers use WIC-T1-CSU/DSU to simulate T1 link). I am provided only one IP address that i can use "172.1.1.2" and i want to bridge that address from R1 (S0/0) to sonicwall firewall WAN interface. Is there any way i can do it?

In the real world, ISPs using T1 do not provide only one address.

When you will produce a real scenario, things can be looked at.