05-18-2010 05:55 AM - edited 03-15-2019 10:48 PM
Now that the NM-CEM-4SER and the NM-CEM-4T1 are no longer available is there anyone out there that could recommend what to do in this case?
Client is disconnecting telco legacy Verizon p2p T1's that connect nortel/Avaya legacy +15 yr old PBX sites together with Adtran T120 at each demarc. Legacy pbx Avaya/Nortel connect via RS232 and V.35 sync connections over p2p Verizon T1 to Central site Legacy Avaya Definity system Adtran T120 v.35/RS232 connections.
How do I route Legacy PBX Synronous connections to act on behalf as if it was a " Telco p2p T1 with clocking " across an mpls network to another Legacy PBX syncronous v.35/RS232 connection and not have syncronization issues. Telco in this case was providing timing for both ends but there is no mechanism in MPLS to account for this sync loss without going CEoIP using the NM-CEM-4SER/NM-CEM-4T1 modules and these modules are a dead product.
Each site uses subrate connections some use 2 Ds0's some use 1 Ds0.
05-18-2010 07:23 AM
Have you searched what is the actual L2 protocol used in these V.35 connections? If HDLC based for example, it is possible to tunnel it using STUN,
Otherwise, your only choice is to source the CEoIP on the refurbished marked, overstock, or use an alternative product for the same functionality.
05-18-2010 09:16 AM
I thought about stun but was told that CEoIP was the way to bridge the channel bank connectivity issue between pbx's.
I thought Stun could not do channelization . verses splitting up in a Ds0 fashion.
Thank you for the thread.
Greg
05-18-2010 10:33 AM
That is correct, CEoIP would be the most correct way.
However if the PBX has V.35 it means it uses a proprietary method to convey signaling and media info on it, as serial interface have no channellization standard. And if this method is HDLC (or frame-relay) based, it can be easily transported using Cisco Routers.
Of course if the PBX also has T1 interfaces then is no problem at all, and just a regular VoIP config will work.
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