Our network admin is in the process of being replaced. I'm a software developer trying to do some network admin duties in the interim. So please be gentle.
We are in the midst of creating a new network for the office. The new network will be run in parallel to the existing network until all the kinks are worked out and we confirm all is working as desired. So we need to have both networks up & running but be completely independent and separate from each other. Here is the list of hardware we currently have in place, in connection order,
5 public static IP's from our ISP
Cable modem for internet access
Cisco 851 router (no wireless)
Netgear VPN Firewall - FVX538 (using FE0 on Cisco)
Netgear Switch - GS724T
I have confirmed with our ISP that the Cisco router is a "stock" router with nothing blocked. So it should be in a default/factory setting.
For our second network, we have another Netgear FVX538 which we would like to connect to the Cisco router for internet access and keep both networks separate on the LAN side. We would like to access the 2 networks separately using 2 of our static ip's we have from our ISP to control which network they use based on the which IP they are trying to connect to the office on. And both networks require internet access from the office.
So what do I need to do to get these 2 separate networks working? Do I need any more hardware? I'm sure, as in most cases, there will be a cheap way to achieve this and then there will be a proper way. I'll settle for the cheap solution for now to get it working but I like having options, so having a better/best solution is appreciated too.
If you need any more information, let me know.
If this specific topic has been discussed in another thread, please post the link.
Thanks for any help you can provide.
To the Cisco it's just 1 network (and it is). That network has the public IP's and has 3 hosts on it; the Cisco router and each Netgear firewall. The private side of the firewalls are masked by the public IP's (ie NAT) and the Cisco doesn't need to know their real IP's. The Netgear firewall will respond when the Cisco says , "Hey I have traffic for this public IP". If Netgear 1 has that IP, it will say, "Send it to me" and the second Netgear won't say anything because it doesn't have that IP. Works vice-versa when traffic is sent to an IP destined for Netgear 2. Does that make sense?