Peter Paluch Mon, 08/16/2010 - 00:42
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  • Cisco Employee,

Hello mohAmed,


A couple of comments:


  1. On the router 1, do you see any OSPF networks present in the routing table? Try issuing the command show ip route ospf on the router 1 and verify that there are routes learned via OSPF. If no networks have been learned via OSPF, nothing can be redistributed from OSPF into BGP.
  2. On the router 1, the OSPF process 1 configuration contains the command redistribute bgp 100 subnets. Are you sure about this command? This will do just the opposite - the router 1 will take the BGP routes and redistribute them into OSPF. If you do not plan to do the redistribution in this direction then remove this command.
  3. If the OSPF routes are present in the router 1 routing table, verify whether they have been imported into the BGP database by issuing the command show ip bgp and observing the output. If the networks have been successfully redistributed into BGP, they must be present in the output of this command.
  4. If the routes are successfully redistributed into the BGP database on router 1, verify whether they have been successfully advertised to router 3 using the same show ip bgp command on router 3. If they are not present, try issuing the command clear ip bgp * out on the router 1 to readvertise the networks. If the routes are still not present in the BGP database on router 3, verify the route filtering you are currently using.
  5. If the routes are present in the router 3 BGP database, verify their next hop attribute and its reachability. It is possible that they are advertised with such a value of the next hop attribute that is not reachable according to the router 3 routing table. Note that you should not rely on default route to reach the next hop - there should always be a more specific route towards the next hop IP address.


Best regards,

Peter

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