08-23-2010 02:08 PM - edited 03-04-2019 09:31 AM
Hi, I was given the following information:
"...
Router1 has IP 10.118.168.1/24 and a secondary 10.118.171.1/24 (They are in VLAN40).
Router2 has IP 10.118.169.1/24 and a secondary 10.118.170.1/24 (They are in VLAN40).
Request:
Setup VRRP between Router1 and Router2 interfaces on VLAN40.
..."
My question:
Is this possible at all?
I know that both HSRP and VRRP require nodes on same LAN segment.
If Router1 IP=10.118.168.1/24 and Router2=10.118.169.1/24 those are different networks then...
In order to make this work should I plan to ask the requester to change IP addresses and put them on same network? For example, Router1=10.118.168.1/24, Router2=10.118.168.2/24 and then the Virtual IP (VIP) could be for example=10.118.168.3/24.
I am missing something here?
Solved! Go to Solution.
08-23-2010 02:16 PM
Hello Marlon,
your understanding is correct
>> In order to make this work should I plan to ask the requester to change IP addresses and put them on same network?
yes, indeed the target of VRRP is to provide first hop redundancy in the SAME ip subnet, being in the same Vlan /broadcast domain is not the same.
you would get a lot of errors messages if you try this setup.
Hope to help
Giuseppe
08-23-2010 02:16 PM
Hello Marlon,
your understanding is correct
>> In order to make this work should I plan to ask the requester to change IP addresses and put them on same network?
yes, indeed the target of VRRP is to provide first hop redundancy in the SAME ip subnet, being in the same Vlan /broadcast domain is not the same.
you would get a lot of errors messages if you try this setup.
Hope to help
Giuseppe
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