03-24-2013 10:08 AM
This may be a total noob question. Each of the 2 WAN ports on my RV042G has its own dedicated public IP address. I would like to set up the router so that all incoming traffic on WAN1 is always routed to a specific server (=LAN IP), and vice versa, that particular server's outgoing. Internet traffic is always sent through WAN1.
It has to be controlled by IP address as the system in question is not directly connected to the router, there is a switch in between.
Is this possible?
Thanks in advance
03-26-2013 01:37 PM
Good afternoon
Hi Per, thanks for using our forum, my name is Johnnatan and I am part of the Small business Support community. Yes, it is possible, what you have to do is to create an ACL, so all the traffic incoming/outcoming is going to bind to one WAN, you have to create an access-list allowing the traffic to one Wan and denying in the other WAN, binding the traffic to a specific WAN.I´ll share you some documentation about it.
http://www6.nohold.net/CiscoSB/Loginr.aspx?login=1&pid=2&app=search&vw=1&articleid=1978
I hope you find this answer useful,
“Please rate useful posts so other users can benefit from it”
Greetings,
Johnnatan Rodriguez Miranda.
Cisco Network Support Engineer.
05-12-2015 05:33 PM
Hi!
I have a similar question.
What if I want to an internal LAN IP outbound traffic always goes through WAN1, unless WAN1 is down (then it goes through WAN2)?
05-28-2015 12:20 AM
You can configure dual-WAN to work in load balance mode, and then create a protocol binding rule to bind all traffic from that specific LAN IP to WAN1.
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