We run BGP over our WAN and we group our BGP neighborships into VRFs. But I was looking at the BGP network statements and I noticed that those are not defined under a specific VRF, but rather under the ipv4 address family. But if a network belongs to a specific VRF, shouldn't the BGP network statement be defined under that VRF?
Here's an example of how we have it configured:
router bgp 12345
network 10.10.10.0 mask 255.255.255.0
address-family ipv4 vrf Customer_A
neighbor 10.10.10.2 description *** CE router for Customer_A ***
So if the 10.10.10.0 network belongs to Customer_A, and Customer_A is in their own VRF, why would our network statement be in the VRF section? Why is it instead in the ipv4 section?
Any feedback is appreciated...thanks.