05-04-2003 04:20 AM - edited 03-02-2019 07:06 AM
Will a VLAN set up on a Cat5 switch in server mode, propagate the existence of the VLAN to a 2950 in client mode (in same VTP domain) to allow a single port on 2950 to join this VLAN without having to set up a VLAN on 2950 with same number and name?
05-04-2003 04:29 AM
As long as the 2950 is a client in the same VTP domain, VLANs created on
the VTP server will also be created on the client - you don't have to set up
the VLANs separately on the 2950.
05-06-2003 12:31 AM
thanks alot!
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