We have a firewall downstream from our Layer3 switch. If I were to define a port on the switch as a layer 2 port (switchport) and connect one of the fw int to that port, would the IP address of the int on the fw and the IP address of the vlan that the port belongs to have to be on the same subnet?
If you were to connect the fw interface to a layer 2 port whether is a L2 or L3 switch you must create a vlan in the switch and place that port in that new vlan for the switchport to reference the fw layer 3 interface-subnet, this is only if that port is currently in a vlan-subnet different from the fw interface subnet.
Remember, access ports operate at layer 2, once you make a switch port a member of a particular vlan is when you have layer 3 interfaces-subnets with their respective vlans defined.
"switchport access vlan # " on the port it is no longer a layer 3 port, once you introduce the " no switchport mode access " and introduce and IP address on the port it becomes a routed port and is no longer a layer 2 port.
This is actually a pretty cool feature, i didn't even know it existed until I was looking for a solution to advertise a subnet (prefix in BGP talk), only if a certain condition existed. This is exactly what conditional advertisements does
j ai une question j ai achete un routeur cisco 887VA-k9 , je le configuré avec la configuration ci- dessous
si je le lier avec mon pc portable sur l un de ses ports directement ça marche toute est bien ( la connexion internet + m...
Attached policy provides CLI access to the Cisco 4G router over text messaging. Two files are in the attached .tar file:
2. PDF with instructions on how to load and use the .tcl file.