I've been studying routing, and although I feel like I have a basic idea of routing and the different protocols associated with it, I've always had this IP address question.
If I you are given the whole network 188.8.131.52/16 by your ISP (I'm using classful addresses to keep it real simple), than why can't that same ISP give someone else the network 184.108.40.206/24.
Since the first network has a 220.127.116.11/16 address, and the other network would have a 18.104.22.168/24 network, wouldn't that mean that it's a whole separate network since the netmasks are different. I know you can't assign those two networks out to two separate companies, but can someone explain why? Thanks!
The network 22.214.171.124/16 includes the range 126.96.36.199 to 188.8.131.52 while network 184.108.40.206/24 includes the range 220.127.116.11 to 18.104.22.168. There you can see that 22.214.171.124/24 is part of 126.96.36.199/16 and you can't give it to a different customer.
Bu isn't it on whole separate network if you have the address 188.8.131.52 with a netmask of /24 vs an address of 184.108.40.206 with a netmask of /16. Aren't those ip addresses different since they're on two different networks?
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