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A question on SRND 5.x

ciscoforum
Level 1
Level 1

http://www.cisco.com/univercd/cc/td/doc/product/voice/c_callmg/5_0/srnd5_0/uc5_0/50dialpl.htm#wp1044323

The following is quoted from the link above. I am not quite follow what it really means. Why force on-net calls dialed as PSTN?

Design Guidelines for Multisite Deployments

You can force on-net calls dialed as PSTN for destinations within the cluster by adding translation patterns that match the E.164 DID ranges for each site and that manipulate the digits so they match the destination's internal extension. However, remember to provision AAR accordingly, using one of the following methods, so that automated PSTN failover is possible when the IP WAN is out of bandwidth:

?Configure the AAR calling search space to exclude the partition containing the "force on-net" translation patterns but to include a partition containing the regular route patterns pointing to the PSTN.

?Configure the AAR group to prefix digits with a special character such as *, and configure additional route patterns such as *9.! and *9.!# (or *0.! and *0.!#) in the regular partition.

3 Replies 3

Chris Deren
Hall of Fame
Hall of Fame

What they mean is that if your users dial a DID of another users within the IPT environment instead of routing the call out to PSTN you can do toll-bypass and route it on your WAN. For example user A dials user B at 913125551000, instead of matching the route pattern first you can match a translation pattern such as 913125551XXX (Assumng you have the entire 1XXX DID range for 3125551XXX), and translate it to let's say 1XXX (assuming 4 digit uniform dialplan), or whatever the actual DN of that user is.

This way you will not have to pay for the call :-)

As they say make sure that your AAR CSS does not have access to this TP Partition.

HTH,

Chris

k, so it's just a dial plan so that user still dial the same way as they did before in PBX system between the sites. But actually the call is using IP first.

Yes.

Chris

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