I recently inherited a small Cisco network that is using Avaya VoIP phones. Since the previous administrator knew nothing about networks, everything was configured in 1 large VLAN. Now, I am trying to move the phones over to a 172.16.128.x/24 VLAN to seperate voice traffic from data traffic. the general switch (a Cisco 3750) port configuration is this:
switchport access vlan 128
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport trunk native vlan 128
switchport mode trunk
switchport voice vlan 130
mls qos trust cos
no cdp enable
spanning-tree bpdufilter enable
Once you configure the port with the above settings and reset the phone, the phone does come up on it's new IP settings (on the 172.16.130.x/24 subnet) and works fine, as does the PC. But before you reset the phone if you add the above port configuration and just reboot the phone (not do a reset), the phone comes back on it's older 172.17.x.x/22 IP settings and works just fine. Routing between VLAN's is done off of the 3750 on a subinterface configured on a 3745.
So my question is, since the phone seems to be pulling from DHCP and "then" pulling an IP address from the Avaya server (on the 172.17.x.x/22 subnet), why would it work on a subnet (172.16.130.x/24) for which it does not have an IP?
I'm no Avaya or VoIP expert (but i'm working on it), so I wanted to see if someone with more experience might know. Thanks.
The short answer is that you don't.... That isn't entirely true while at
the same time it kind of is, but for the most part you don't configure
the softkeys. You enable or disable them via TCL. Here is the long
answer. Be sure to read the whole thing or e...
Topology: IP Phone > Switches > Microsoft NPS setup to forward 802.1x
proxy to > ISE 2.1 patch 3 Authentication: EAP-TLS using Cisco MIC SANs
Phone Models 802.1X support? 802.1x flavor Addtl Comment EAP-MD5 EAP-TLS
Cisco 3905 Y Y N Cisco 6911 Y Y N Cisco ...
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