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Inbound Calling over Channel Bank Connection

I am trying to integrate a legacy IVR into our CallManager environment. The IVR has a T1 interface which is set up as a "standard loop-start channel bank" with answer supervision.

It is connected to a T1 port on a 2811. The controller/ds0-group is set up as follows:

controller T1 0/0/0

framing ami

linecode sf

clock source internal

ds0-group 1 timeslots 1-24 type fxs-loop-start.

I have a dial-peer configured for access using DN 8082 (route pattern configured in CCM):

dial-peer voice 13 pots

destination-pattern 8082

port 0/0/0:1

I also have a voip dial-peer configured:

dial-peer voice 100 voip

destination-pattern 8522

session target

incoming called-number 8522

dtmf-relay h245-signal cisco-rtp

codec g711ulaw

I can get calls from an IP phone to the IVR without an issue. I hear the recording and can pass DTMF to the IVR without issue.

The goal is to have the IVR place a call to an IP phone. This is where we're having trouble. The IVR is going off hook and says it hears dial tone. It is matching the above pots dial-peer when it goes off-hook.

However, the 2811 gateway does not appear to receive any digits (IVR is directed to send 8522), and thus can't hit any outbound dial-peer.

Have looked at debug voip ccapi inout, debug voip vtsp all, debug h245 events, and can't really see what is('nt) happening.

Does anyone have any suggestions as to what might be happening here?

Dave Wolgast

Hall of Fame Super Gold

Re: Inbound Calling over Channel Bank Connection

First of all, one would need to be sure that the IVR is actually sending the digits. Short of inserting a network analyzer (like a DA30) with audio output (some have dtmf recognition too), I wouldn't know how to do this.

Assuming the IVR is sending the digits correctly,one would look at

to start with.