Simple IP phone question (avaya and cisco network)

[Roger Richards]

My IP Office Device or Call server is plugged in to a cisco 2950 <-- port is configure with access port vlan 20

I have vlan 20 voice

I have valn 10 data

All phone are plugged into a Avaya POE (All setting are correct)

My phones will only work if I trunk All ports, but according to design, I am suppose to only ,"untagPVIDonly" or all ports .

Is it cause I set the port for the call server as an access port ? And an access ports are only untagged traffic? If so, How do I not make it not an access port and still allow the phones to reach the call server on vlan 20.

I hope I don't sound tooo foolish.

[Dennis Mink]

Roger when you say:

My phones will only work if I trunk All ports,  (does that mean you have it working???)

but according to design, (what design?) I am suppose to only ,"untagPVIDonly" or all ports

check the following post, which has an example:

https://supportforums.cisco.com/thread/2179048

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