11-14-2013 05:54 PM - edited 03-01-2019 05:42 PM
Hi Everyone - Quick question on IPv6 subnetting
If we are allocated a /32 from an RIR (eg 2001:0DB0::/32), and we advertise the /32 to our upstream Inet providers - Assigning
2001:0DB0:0:10::1/64 to a loop Interface, we *should* be able to reach the Upstream providers IPv6 addresses with a source of the loop interface(As the /64 is within the /32 subnet)?
Cheers.
Solved! Go to Solution.
11-14-2013 06:00 PM
Hi John,
Correct. You should be able to use that technique to perform initial testing for your ipv6 connectivity. You can use extended ping for instance to specify the loopback interface as the source address.
Regards
11-14-2013 06:00 PM
Hi John,
Correct. You should be able to use that technique to perform initial testing for your ipv6 connectivity. You can use extended ping for instance to specify the loopback interface as the source address.
Regards
11-14-2013 06:02 PM
Thanks Harold.
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