02-20-2007 02:04 AM - edited 03-05-2019 02:28 PM
Do you know if is possible to use an ip address (loopback 0) that belong to a VRF as ntp source address?
I have this doubt because the NTP server is reachable by ping and at the moment i'm not able to synch both my 6509 and 3560...thanks a lot
Simone
Solved! Go to Solution.
02-20-2007 02:53 AM
Yes,
This is very possible as a matter of a fact i use this on my own ISR.
Can you reach the ntp server witch icmp with an extended ping sourced from the loopback interface ?
02-20-2007 02:53 AM
Yes,
This is very possible as a matter of a fact i use this on my own ISR.
Can you reach the ntp server witch icmp with an extended ping sourced from the loopback interface ?
02-20-2007 04:51 AM
Yes I can.
I've cheched and in the ntp server command was missing vrf (name of vrf).
thanks again
simone
Find answers to your questions by entering keywords or phrases in the Search bar above. New here? Use these resources to familiarize yourself with the community: