First off; I'm a n00b when it comes to serious networking.
The only reason I'm trying to make sense of this is based on a pressing need to let two separate networks share the same fiber cable from one switch to the next.
I've used two sg-300 with 10 ports with all ports in the same (default) vlan for a few years now to distribute my lan in both the second floor and the basement. But now my cable TV provider has decided to switch to IPTV, and with no coax support. So suddenly I need to distribute IPTV from the basement up, but without loosing my lan or allowing the two networks to reach eachother. I was hoping to avoid new cabling for this, and though maybe vlan trunking could solve my problem. Looked easy at first glance, but now I realize I'm in over my head.
What I've done is:
Create three new vlans: 10 LAN, 20 TV and 50 TRANSPORT
Join ports 1-8 to vlan 10 as access ports, untagged
Join port 9 to vlan 20, as an acces port, untagged
Join port 10 to vlan 50, as a trunk port
Both switches are set up identically. But I've done this manually not using any protocol like VPT. Needless to say, this does not work. I can only reach computers on the same vlan (which is good) on the same physical switch (which is a problem).
So how could this be be acheived correctly, without creating unnecessary overhead?
Should the acces ports in vlan 10 and 20 be tagged?
Or should the truk port in vlan 50 be tagged?
Should I join the trunk port to the other vlans manually? If so, as tagged or untagged? I found an article on cisco.com claiming that it was a member of all vlans by default, but in my web interface it's listed as excluded from all vlans except 50.
Is there some other setting I need to worry about, like spanning three protocol, ISL etc?
We are pleased to announce availability of Beta software for 16.6.3.
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towards Catalyst 9500/9400/9300/3850/3650 switching platforms. We are
looking for early feedback from customers befor...
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