03-22-2014 07:11 AM - edited 03-07-2019 06:48 PM
We have implemented a Cisco 2851 as our gateway router. We provide internet access to about 100 clients on a 10.10.0.0/24 network attached to Gi0/1 of the Cisco which is IP Nat Inside to Gi0/0 (to isp).
The devices the clients have are Ubiquiti Nanostations.
My question is:
We want to give certain clients a public ip out of our block. I'm wondering what the best way to set this up in the router?
Solved! Go to Solution.
03-24-2014 02:18 PM
What is the "ip route ..." statement meant to be doing ?
If i understand you have router with a private network on one interface and your gi0/0 interface has a public IP.
Do you also have other public IPs to NAT ?
If so, if the public IPs are part of the same range as the interface IP you should just need a NAT statement.
If the public IPs are from a different range you still only need NAT but you have to make sure the ISP is routing that range to the outside interface of your router which they should be doing if they have allocated them to you.
Jon
03-22-2014 10:09 AM
03-22-2014 10:35 AM
Thank you Paul for your reply
So is 1 to 1 nat how this should be done, or routing? Ideally if I give them say, 208.116.7.14, would that be their public facing IP with this NAT statement, or would they be getting the inside global ip of the router?
Thanks
03-22-2014 12:41 PM
03-24-2014 02:10 PM
I guess we are having issues with the commands, because this customer cannot ping the address on his network, but it is pingable from the internet.
I have
ip nat inside source static 10.10.0.xxx 'public ip'
ip route 'public ip' 'mask' gi0/0
The 10.10.0.xxx the ip of his device on our subnet, the public ip is the one we are provisioing to him. It is set up where our subnet overloads to our gateway to our isp.
Do i need an ip outside source static statement as well?
The issue is, this is all working on a Microtik RB1200 right now, but not on the cisco, and we can't figure out why.
Thanks
03-24-2014 02:18 PM
What is the "ip route ..." statement meant to be doing ?
If i understand you have router with a private network on one interface and your gi0/0 interface has a public IP.
Do you also have other public IPs to NAT ?
If so, if the public IPs are part of the same range as the interface IP you should just need a NAT statement.
If the public IPs are from a different range you still only need NAT but you have to make sure the ISP is routing that range to the outside interface of your router which they should be doing if they have allocated them to you.
Jon
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