In trying to resolve an issue for a customer their architecture at the access layer includes a Cisco Router 2801 for VPN termination and Cat 3650 for LAN accesss. I discovered that the there was another connection to a Cisco 1745 for VPN redundancy. However the 1745 was configured for IGMP between it and the Cat 3650. The cat had a VLAN interface configured for the same IP as the cisco 1745. My question is, why would you use IGMP between the 3650 and the 1745 vs. between the 2801 and the 1745
Hi everyone, I would like to thank you in advance for any help you can provide a newcomer like myself!
Im studying the 100-105 book by Odom and am currently on the topic of Port security. I purchased a used 2960 and I'm trying to follow a...
While deploying a number of 18xx/2802/3802 model access points (APs), which run AP-COS as their operating platform. It can be observed on some occasions that while many of their access points were able to join the fabric WLC withou...
I am going to design and build an LAN network under a tunnel underground with long distance between the switches.
I will have 2 Catalyst switches and 8 Industrial IE3000, and they will be connected with fiber.
For now I am planning on use Layer-2 s...