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Blue

OSPF Areas

What would be the purpose of configurng an OSPF routing process on, say, a routed access layer switch, and giving it an OSPF process ID of 1, while creating an OSPF process on its OSPF neighbor and giving it a different process ID?

What is achieved by this? Two OSPF routers dont have to be using the same OSPF process ID to establish a neigborship and exchange routes, so what are the implications of using 2 different process IDs for adjacent OSPF routers?

Thanks

Victor

1 ACCEPTED SOLUTION

Accepted Solutions
Hall of Fame Super Bronze

Re: OSPF Areas

No implications whatsover. The process ID is locally significant and allows you to have more than one OSPF process in a single OSPF capable device.

HTH,

__

Edison.

3 REPLIES
Hall of Fame Super Bronze

Re: OSPF Areas

No implications whatsover. The process ID is locally significant and allows you to have more than one OSPF process in a single OSPF capable device.

HTH,

__

Edison.

Hall of Fame Super Silver

Re: OSPF Areas

Victor

While I agree with Edison that the OSPF process ID is locally significant, I will suggest a slightly different explanation of why there might be different OSPF process IDs. The underlying principle is that the OSPF process ID should be a predictable value. In many cases we achieve that by making the process ID the same in every router. But sometimes a different approach may be used: in my lab work preparing for the CCIE lab I would frequently make the router names R1, R2, R3, etc and make the OSPF process IDs 1, 2, 3, etc corresponding to the router host name. I have worked with a customer whose standard practice was to make the OSPF process id correspond to the OSPF router ID and with a customer whose standard practice was to make the OSPF process ID correspond to the OSPF area ID. It matters less what mechanism you use to assign process IDs and matters more that the assignment be logical and consistent.

HTH

Rick

Blue

Re: OSPF Areas

Thanks, gentlemen, for your informative answers.

Appeciate it...

Victor

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