11-10-2008 03:38 AM - edited 03-06-2019 02:23 AM
Is there a problem if I have only one OSPF-area and this area is not area 0? So I have only area 100 but not connected to an area 0?
Thx.
11-10-2008 03:45 AM
Hi,
I believe, there won't be any problem until & unless you don't have any other area set up in future. If you have any other area need to setup, then certainly you need to set up area 0 and then you must set up to join all other area to this area 0.
If this is wrong, pls reply.
Thnx,
Jaleel Ahmed
11-10-2008 07:52 AM
Jaleel
You are quite correct. As long as there is only a single OSPF area then it can be given any valid area ID. As soon as 2 OSPF areas need to communicate with each other then one of them must be area 0.
HTH
Rick
11-11-2008 12:06 AM
Hallo!
Thx for your answer.
I have to change the area number from 0 to 100 because my customer has area 0 already in his part of network. Maybe in the future this 2 areas will bei communicate but only maybe in future.
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