Is it an accepted practice though? I know in some cases, such as with firewalls, this is accepted practice but have not seen this used in other cases, particularly when the IP address on the routed port isn't in the subnet associated with the VLAN Access port on the other.
You have introduced a very new dimension to the discussion. As far as connecting a routed port on one side with an access port of the other side, I would say that this is a generally accepted practice. You have now also introduced the aspect that the IP address on the routed port is not in the subnet associated with the access port. I do not know why someone would do this, other than it being a mistake. In general I would expect that any connection where the two sides are not in the same subnet would not pass IP traffic over that connection (with the exception where one side has configured ip unnumbered).
We are pleased to announce availability of Beta software for 16.6.3. 16.6.3 will be the second rebuild on the 16.6 release train targeted towards Catalyst 9500/9400/9300/3850/3650 switching platforms. We are looking for early feedback from custome...